Posted: April 08, 1998 at 04:04:41: by Neithan
: OK, new to the board here, but I'm psyched I've found it! Question for discussion:
: Do you feel Denethor's behavior was a direct result of him being "enslaved" by the power of Sauron through the Palantir? Or was his desperation just an eventuality that was a direct result of him trying to go toe-to-toe, with good intentions, with the Nameless One? Do you see where my two questions differ? In other words, was he just a less radical version of Saruman? The whole Palantir thing still confuses me, even though I'm in the middle of my 7th time reading the Trilogy.
Does it really matter?, what I mean is, after the initial contact it could only go one way for Denethor, not being the "true" heir of Elendil. Whether it was subversion or despair that drove him, he still achieved most of the ends that Sauron could want him to. Personally I think that it was a small part Dominance of Sauron and a great part despair at the peril of Gondor that drove the proud steward, but what is that but a subtle form of enslavement? could sauron have done better with a dupe, such as Saruman? I think not, furthermore, the pride of a faithful Dúnedain prince would not allow him to submit totally (I think).: Discuss.
|
