Posted: February 07, 1999 at 07:48:10: by Padster
OK, so lets us assume that Saruman's ring was subject to the One Ring since it was made using the same principles of ring making as all the other rings of power.If we assume that it was possible that Celebrimbor's knowledge was written down and used by Saruman. What happens if this knowledge resurfaced and fell into the hands of someone capable of using it. And assume this all happened after the War of the Ring. We would have a load of rings knocking around that would obviously not be subject to the One's power (since it would no longer exist). Rings of power did exist before the One was made. Therefore a ring could exist and not be subject to the power of the One. That is why Saruman's ring may not have been subject to the power of the One. Sauron made the One after all the others had been made and perhaps THAT is why they were all bound to it. Possibly those made after (i.e. Saruman's ring) were not bound to the One, specifically because they were made after the One had been, and were therefore not bound in the same way, or not at all. Cheers Padster
|