Posted: February 07, 1999 at 15:48:42: by Michael Martinez
: : OK, so lets us assume that Saruman's ring was subject : to the One Ring since it was made using the same principles of : ring making as all the other rings of power.: If we assume that it was possible that Celebrimbor's knowledge : was written down and used by Saruman. What happens if this : knowledge resurfaced and fell into the hands of someone capable : of using it. And assume this all happened after the War of the : Ring. We would have a load of rings knocking around that would : obviously not be subject to the One's power (since it would no : longer exist). Rings of power did exist before the One : was made. Correct. : Therefore a ring could exist and not be subject to the power of : the One. That is why Saruman's ring may not have been subject : to the power of the One. Sauron made the One after all the : others had been made and perhaps THAT is why they were all : bound to it. Possibly those made after (i.e. Saruman's ring) : were not bound to the One, specifically because they were made : after the One had been, and were therefore not bound in the : same way, or not at all. The One Ring, while it existed, was supposed to control ALL other Rings, regardless of who made them. Sauron had no part in making the Three and yet they were subject to the One. Why, then, should any Ring made prior to the end of the One Ring's existence be exempt from its power, if that Ring was made according to the same principles as the others?
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Parma Endorion: Essays On Middle-earth, Revised Edition
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