Posted: February 08, 1999 at 01:40:03: by Emrys
: : Therefore a ring could exist and not be subject to the power of
: : the One. That is why Saruman's ring may not have been subject
: : to the power of the One. Sauron made the One after all the
: : others had been made and perhaps THAT is why they were all
: : bound to it. Possibly those made after (i.e. Saruman's ring)
: : were not bound to the One, specifically because they were made
: : after the One had been, and were therefore not bound in the
: : same way, or not at all.: The One Ring, while it existed, was supposed to control ALL other Rings, regardless of who made them. Sauron had no part in making the Three and yet they were subject to the One. Why, then, should any Ring made prior to the end of the One Ring's existence be exempt from its power, if that Ring was made according to the same principles as the others? Perhaps an answer lies not necessarily in the principles of the One Ring's (and subsequently Saruman' ring) making, but rather in the purpose. Would I be off-base to say that the One was made to exert control over the existing Rings of Power at the time? Is it possible that that purpose, more than the specific art involved in creating it, is what gave the One power over the others, and might thus exclude Saruman's later creation? Regards,
Emrys
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