Posted: February 08, 1999 at 02:15:38: by Padster
: Perhaps an answer lies not necessarily in the principles of the One Ring's (and subsequently Saruman' ring) making, but rather in the purpose. Would I be off-base to say that the One was made to exert control over the existing Rings of Power at the time? Is it possible that that purpose, more than the specific art involved in creating it, is what gave the One power over the others, and might thus exclude Saruman's later creation?Exactly! I see no reason why Saruman's ring would be subject to the power of the One. For the one reason that it WAS made AFTER the One and therefore the One was made without taking it into account. We are not taking about something that is subject to say, the laws of physics, for which all physical matter MUST obey. A law which is immutable (as far as we know). We are talking about an object which was manufactured which can only have taken into account the things in existance at the time of its creation. That is not to say that Saruman's ring could not fall under the sway of the One, though I would think it likely that the One may have to be reforged, just like a number of items in the past have, such as Narsil becoming Anduril, Anglachael becoming Gurthang and the Nauglamir being reforged to include The Silmaril. Be talking you Padster
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