Posted: February 09, 1999 at 13:53:28: by Michael Martinez
: : The One Ring, while it existed, was supposed to control ALL
: : other Rings, regardless of who made them. Sauron had no part
: : in making the Three and yet they were subject to the One.
: : Why, then, should any Ring made prior to the end of the One
: : Ring's existence be exempt from its power, if that Ring was
: : made according to the same principles as the others?: Perhaps an answer lies not necessarily in the principles of the
: One Ring's (and subsequently Saruman' ring) making, but rather
: in the purpose. Would I be off-base to say that the One was
: made to exert control over the existing Rings of Power at the
: time? Is it possible that that purpose, more than the specific
: art involved in creating it, is what gave the One power over
: the others, and might thus exclude Saruman's later creation? Technically, controlling other Rings of Power was only one of the Ring's functions. Sauron also intended it to enhance his own ability to dominate other wills. So the primary function of the Ring, it could be argued, was to DOMINATE other things: wills, Rings of Power, etc. From that perspective, there seems little likelihood that Saruman's Ring could have escaped domination by the One.
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Parma Endorion: Essays on Middle-earth, Revised Edition
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