Posted: February 21, 1999 at 19:46:42: by Jon
: Though this is not a topic I have recently seen discussed, what reason did Tolkien have for giving the Valar genders. I understand in most mythologies, the theme of powerful indivuals acquiring their abilities from their godly ancestory is present. I understand the reasoning for giving the Maiar genders, but why the Valar. Tolkien mentions somewhere in the Silmarillion I believe, that the Valar marriages were different in the since from our perception of marriages. This is one question that truly puzzles me. In some of Tolkiens earlier(?) work he had the Valar have children. Fionwë (Eonwë) was supposedly the child of Manwë and Varda. Genders really weren't that important. I read up on this subject a few years back, and if recall correctly, genders were more a representation of personality. Tulkas, for example, is a great warrior, a classic male roll. Therefore he embodies a male. But keep in mind, Valar and Maiar have no bodies. They can take any form that pleases them, so I wouldn't really say that any of the Maia or Vala have genders at all. Jon
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