Posted: April 07, 1999 at 04:41:03: by Stephen Geard
: Why? The Eldar didn't become impotent or anything. In fact, Mithrellas, being a Silvan Elf, might nonetheless have been an Elda as well (assuming she was descended of the Nandor). Hence, when she had children (albeit Half-elven children) by Imrazor the Numenoran, she would have been an Elda having children.I don't mean to suggest that the Eldar became impotent, but rather that one of the effects of the 'fading' was that they would have few, if any, children. The Eldar had precious few children in Middle-earth anyway. For example, of the 14 grandchildren of Finwë who came to Middle-earth (I don't count Orodreth, and there are one or two other shadowy ones) only the two girls definately produced children in Middle-earth. For all their wisdom and power Celeborn and Galadriel produced only one child, likewise Thingol and Melian. Gil-galad none. Fingon none. Of the seven sons of Fëanor, only three even married, let alone produced children. On the basis of a sperm count perhaps the Eldar were not impotent, but on the basis of a child count they weren't far from it. And, I am suggesting, that the onset of 'fading' exacerbated this problem. Mithrellas's children were (like Arwen's) sired by a Man, not an Elda. : Legolas may have been born in the Third Age as well. He is not mentioned by Tolkien in the passages discussing Thranduil and his father Oropher. We don't know when Legolas was born. Although, because he recognized the Balrog of Moria for what it was, I tend to think it may not have been the first he had seen. That pushes his birth back into, at least, the Second Age.
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