Posted: June 09, 1999 at 14:18:47: by Dai
: : : Again... there is something I am curious about. This time the subject is Quenya. I have been learning the language for some time now, but there is something I have not found an answer to. In which order are the Quenya endings put e.g if you have a plural word, put in a past tense sentence as an accusative, which of the endings is comefirst/last? : While I am far from a language expert (yet), I may be able to shed a little illumination here. Most old Germanic languages, i.e. Anglo-Saxon, Old Norse, Frisian, Old High German etc.. (languages Tolkien was intimate with) there is usually a different ending for each different form. {This happens to be the case in Latin as well}For example in Anglo-Saxon a weak verb of class 2 like 'lufian' - 'to love' is for : plural past 'lufodon' : plural present 'lufiath' [th - thorn] : singular present 3rd person 'lufath' : singular past 3rd person 'lufode' : The idea being that each form is not exclusively represented by one ending. i.e. not all verbs ending in 'on' are plural past etc. : Anyway if I have time later I will look at my Tolkien language stuff. Meanwhile I hope that this helps a little. : :) Well... It didnīt :)
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