Posted: October 07, 1999 at 20:06:35: by Michael Martinez
: yes, but the rhyme is not just a child's jingle. It is a sort
: of spell. If the elves had written it, it would contain lament,
: not triumph. Repeating the rhyme really works some form of
: magic. Remember the sky darkening when Gandalf spoke it in the
: Black Tongue at Elrond's council. The entire rhyme must have
: been written in that language initially, and later translated
: to the Common Speech. The rhyme must have been written by
: Sauron as a covenant or magical invocation to what he wished of
: the Ring.Well, Gandalf says only "It is only two lines of a verse long known in Elven-lore" when he translates the Black Speech inscription for Frodo. It's impossible for Sauron to have spoken the entire rhyme when he first made the Ring because the dispositions would have made no sense. When the Elves would have conferred with him to learn his lore-rhyme after the War of the Elves and Sauron is a mystery to me as well. And I don't see why the Elves should create a rhyme of any different tone from the one in the rhyme. But Gandalf did not repeat the rhyme at Rivendell. He simply spoke the words in the Black Speech. He only spoke the words which were inscribed on the Ring, and which were later incorporated into the rhyme.
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