Posted: December 25, 1999 at 21:52:36: by Fangorn the Wizard
: : In the hobbit Tolkien mentions that bilbo's ring is not the only magic ring (that grants invisibilty). So did Sauron's "other" 9,7,3 rings posess the power invisibilty as well? Also why was Bilbo able to use the ONE in the Hobbit so many times while every time Frodo tries to use the damn thing in lotr, it's like sacreligious and he even gets stabbed in the friggen arm by a ringwraith, was the ell is that i ask! any followup is greatly appreciated.: : jinx : I will try my best to answer both questions. ;^) : The Nine, I think, at least did grant invisibility. This is why they are only seen as black-cloaked shadows...hence, The Black Riders. Also, when Frodo puts on the Ring upon Wethertop he goes into the "Wraith-World" and sees them in their true form. Fellowship of the Ring, A Knife in the Dark (second last paragraph): :
: ...and at last he slowly drew out the chain, and slipped the Ring on the forefinger of his left hand.
: Immediately, though everything else remained as before, dim and dark, the shapes became terribly clear. He was able to see beneath their black wrappings. There were five tall figures...In their white face burned keen and merciless eyes; upon their gray hairs were helms of silver; in their haggard hands were swords of steel...
:
: The invisiblity, as I understand, is more like a transition into the Wraith-world more than anything else therefore I would guess that all the rings in Sauron's power would grant invisibility. : As for your other question, I think it's a matter of Sauron's power. When Bilbo possesed the Ring, Sauron was still gathering power and form in Dol Guldur and therefore the Ring would not have had as strong a hold as it had over Frodo in LotR. Also, in The Hobbit, I don't think that JRRT had fully decided the purpose of the Ring yet (I could be wrong though). : Hope that helps! :^) Whoah!!! something went tragically wrong with that quote!
Sorry :^(
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