Posted: January 14, 2000 at 17:04:24: by Michael Martinez
In an earlier message, Tar-Elenion wrote: : : You're assuming that Doriath was in that position. There was : : effectively no Doriath any more. Dior RE-established the realm. That : : is what Tolkien says. He didn't simply step into a power vacuum and : : take control, he established the realm all over again.: JRRT's other words are RECOVER the realm and RESTORE the realm. These words do not negate the fact that the kingdom was destroyed and subsequently re-established. : : The people of Doriath didn't summon Dior. He simply showed up and said : : he would be king. That they accepted him only legitimizes his claim to : : be king. The "Thingol's Heir" doesn't mean Thingol designated him as : : his heir, or that he was in fact of law and precedent the heir of : : Thingol. : But what JRRT says is that Dior is Eluchil, Thingols Heir (and we all : know how exacting JRRT was in his choice of names). I don't follow you. The name doesn't imply any legal designation. : There is nothing stated that says Thingol did not designate him as heir. : But as was addressed previously there is no need to name a formal heir if : you are not going to die (and he did not know he was going to). The very : essence of his name, Eluchil, gives evidence enough that he was in fact : Thingols legitimate heir. Further evidence is that no other of Thingols : close male descent kindred took up the throne. Also Dior Eluchil may well : have been summoned; Melian did send messages to Ossiriand after Thingols : death. There is no evidence to support the contention that Dior INHERITED anything from Thingol. He was not summoned to Doriath, he went to reestablish the kingdom of Thingol. And we don't know if Melian sent messages. The story in THE SILMARILLION is completely bogus. Absence of denial proves nothing about an assertion, so Tolkien's lack of denial about Dior being a legally designated heir does not in any prove that Dior was such an heir. Tolkien doesn't deny that Dior was an axe-murderer, but there is no more reason to assume he was one than to assume that he was INHERITING the kingdom. : : It sounds very much like Dior achieved his regality through popular : : acclamation, and not through inheritance. : I am curious as to what leads you to think that no legitimate inheritance : can pass through the female line? I dont think you have actually stated : what leads you to that belief.:) I haven't stated that particular belief. I've merely pointed out that in Dior's case there is no indication that inheritance occurred. My BELIEF is that Dior was not a direct heir to Thingol. He was Thingol's successor, but that succession was not appointed by Thingol or Sindarin law. Thingol's kingdom was different from Dior's. For one thing, it's doubtful Dior claimed kingship over all the Sindar (which would have been pointless by that time, but in matters of law it should be a significant issue).
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