Posted: January 15, 2000 at 04:47:02: by Tar-Elenion
: In an earlier message, Tar-Elenion wrote: : : : You're assuming that Doriath was in that position. There was : : : effectively no Doriath any more. Dior RE-established the realm. That : : : is what Tolkien says. He didn't simply step into a power vacuum and : : : take control, he established the realm all over again.: : JRRT's other words are RECOVER the realm and RESTORE the realm. : These words do not negate the fact that the kingdom was destroyed and subsequently re-established. Thingol is slain and "his realm is ended" (he can't have a realm, ie kingdom or influence, he is dead). However it does not say destroyed, the land and people (and possibly the Queen, see below) are still there thus Dior can "...recover [ie regain something that is yours] the realm of Thingol." Note that in both the 'C' and 'D1' versions that the realm is still referred to as Thingol's even though he is dead; the Kingdom itself is still there. : : : The people of Doriath didn't summon Dior. He simply showed up and said : : : he would be king. That they accepted him only legitimizes his claim to : : : be king. The "Thingol's Heir" doesn't mean Thingol designated him as : : : his heir, or that he was in fact of law and precedent the heir of : : : Thingol.
: : But what JRRT says is that Dior is Eluchil, Thingols Heir (and we all : : know how exacting JRRT was in his choice of names). : I don't follow you. The name doesn't imply any legal designation. I think we both accept that Dior is referred to in any number of instances as "Thingol's heir"("...Elwing ... was the daughter of Dior, Thingol's heir"; "I am also the heir of King Elwe...". Note that in the first instance the designation is descriptive of function, not being used as a name.) The definition of heir is: "1.a person who inherits or is legally entitled to inherit another's property or title upon the other's death. 2.anyone who inherits any part of another's property, either by the provisions of a will or by the natural action of the law." Webster's New Twentieth Century Dictinary, Unabridged 2nd Edition. : : There is nothing stated that says Thingol did not designate him as heir. : : But as was addressed previously there is no need to name a formal heir if : : you are not going to die (and he did not know he was going to). The very : : essence of his name, Eluchil, gives evidence enough that he was in fact : : Thingols legitimate heir. Further evidence is that no other of Thingols : : close male descent kindred took up the throne. Also Dior Eluchil may well : : have been summoned; Melian did send messages to Ossiriand after Thingols : : death.
: There is no evidence to support the contention that Dior INHERITED anything from Thingol. He was not summoned to Doriath, he went to reestablish the kingdom of Thingol. And we don't know if Melian sent messages. The story in THE SILMARILLION is completely bogus. You may deny THE SILMARILLION so I will quote from the HoME Tale of Years in the War of the Jewels. First the 'C' version which you are referring to above when you state Dior re-established Thingol's realm: " 503 ...Melian escaped and carried off the Nauglamir and the Silmaril and brought it to Beren and Luthien." The 'D1' version is similar in intent. The 'D2' version is different: "Dior returns to Doriath, and with the power of the Silmaril restores it; but Melian departed to Valinor." "The suggestion is that [Melian] was in Doriath when Dior came; cf the note cited on page 350 [that Dior]... is welcomed by Melian". So in the part you are citing a message did indeed go to Ossiriand the messenger being Melian herself. In the 'D2' version Melian the Queen is still in Doriath and welcomes Dior, Thingol's heir. : : I am curious as to what leads you to think that no legitimate inheritance : : can pass through the female line? I dont think you have actually stated : : what leads you to that belief.:)
: I haven't stated that particular belief. snip In the Gil-galad thread started on 12/20/99 you stated: "Elrond was not a descendant of Finwe through any male line. The High Kingship had to end with Gilgalad because there were no other male line descendants of Finwe left in Middle-earth." I think this implies that your interpretation of the books is that to inherit a kingship you must be of male line descent. That is what started this thread when I pointed out that Dior was Thingol's heir and became King after Thingols death though of female line descent and that it is implied that Maeglin was Turgon's heir though of female line descent. I think that question still stands: Why do you come to that conclusion? One more question: by your definition did Feanor inherit Kingship from Finwe, did Fingon inherit from Fingolfin and Turgon from Fingon and Erienion Gil-galad from Turgon? Thanks
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