Posted: February 04, 2000 at 13:18:08: by Michael Martinez
: In a very basic sense The Lord of the Rings is firmly based in
: the world of Mediaeval thought. The novel is essentially a
: Mediaeval invention. The Classical World came up with most
: forms of literature, epic, comedy, satire, history etc etc but
: as far as a longish fictional story in prose (a novel) is
: concerned, we have to look for its genesis in Mediaeval
: Byzantium and the "Romances" of byzantine writers. A later
: flowering occurred in the west, probably under indirect
: byzantine influence, in such writing as the Catalan Tirant lo
: Blanc etc. So, at least in its form, LOTR owes all to
: Mediaevality.Yes, I would agree THE LORD OF THE RINGS owes a great deal to medievality. I'll just never agree that things which can be found outside of medieval culture are in any way innately medieval. :)
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