: The argument that if there is no medieval influence in LOTR then why do so many people think that there is, is the same argumant that was used to suggest that Arwen was a stay-at-home and do the knitting type personality. I couldn't say if she was or was not a servile woman since in my view Tolkien never gave enough information to make any judgement about her personality or character.

It seems to me that you are equating two different things as if they are the same arguement. The first is whether LoTR is a "medieval" story-that is set in a medieval time period, with medieval history, architecture, social structure etc...and I'm with you, it decidedly is not a medieval book, nor about the Middle Ages. The other issue is taken up in the second paragraph which addresses whether LoTR is influenced by "medievalism" for lack of a better term can again be split into two different arguements. The first is whether or not LoTR is influenced by "medievalism". The second is whether or not Tolkien is influenced by medievalism as a result of what so many people think-a sort if there is smoke, there must be fire arguement. The second I agree with you on, people "thinking" it is making it so doesn't really work logically. But the other issue, is LoTR influenced by medievalism-yes, without question it is. As I said in a previous post I will be very glad to include a list if folks are interested.