: There is no evidence that Tolkien ever used the word "house" in this way with respect to the Elves. The only "iffy" passage is to be found in "Of Tuor and his Coming to Gondolin", where Voronwe says he is "Voronwe son of Aranwe of the House of Fingolfin", but there the usage is not explained or given any context. He was trying to get into Turgon's kingdom, and it is not established that Turgon was ruling a son of the House of Fingolfin. So Voronwe's statement may have been intended to be taken literally, or Tolkien may have lapsed and used the wrong name.

[snip]

Actually, I seem to remember it used a bit more often. Although maybe it was just this passage I was thinking of. But "household" is used quite often, is it not? As when Elrond suggests sending someone from his household with the Fellowship. If such a person needed to identify him-/herself, wouldn't he/she likely say "of the House of"?

At least that's how I reconcile all the various and somewhat conflicting sources. Making Gildor a chief of Finrod's houselhold is much less disruptive to Tolkien's published work, including the Silmarillion, (say, a cousin by marriage or whatnot) than making him an actual heir of Finrod.

If he is an heir, then all sorts of confusing (but not necessarily impossible... just messy) things result. First, the genealogies have to be revised... but not just revised (since apparently they have to be changed anyway): a new individual would have to be added. Second, Gildor and his band IMO become much less heroic. They are in effect abandoning Middle-earth in its hour of need (what if Elrond and Galadriel had done the same thing? or Gandalf?). At the very least, he would need to explain himself.

If Gildor is not a chief of Finrod's household, but an actual heir, how do you explain him (and his actions)?

Cheers.

Dave C-Q