Posted: April 12, 2000 at 16:20:52: by Telchar
This post ... and I do feel a little like Neithan ... is very unfactual!1. In the second age, apart form the last few years, there was no Gondor (there was however Numenor) 2. Gondors power peaked about TA 1025-1100 3. There was no Sauron to oppose Gondor in all of the 3rd age! not before the war of the ring at least. I am aware that his influence and dominion controlled easterling, wainraiders, corsairs ect. The only direct connection to Sauron was The Nazgul who took Minas Ithil in TA2002 some 46 years before the kings line failed. A point at wich Gondor had been at long decay! 4. About Gondor being less and Rohan more??? Well I think its very narrowminded to look only at the battlepower. We must think (as do I belive Tolkien did) of it in a wider perspective: Gondor was, though in decay, more because of: Its age, lore, cultur, arts, inheritage, wisdom ect. Roran was, though free and proud, less for the excact same reasons. 5. As for putting Gondor down for not aiding Rohan, then please reread the passages where Rohan needs help; the excact same periods of time where Gondor itself is under its hardest pressure. 6. As for failing to watch Mordor, blame ignorance and decay, they never stopped keeping a guard on Anduin and maintained Ithilien uptil only about hundred years before the war of the ring! 7. As for Beren, 19th ruling steward, granting Saruman the keys of orthanc, well blame me if it wasn't the reasonable desision of the time??? 8. As for my typing and spelling, hmmm please have me excused as english is not my language of birth :) 9. Keep smiling Tolkienfans - Cheers Telchar!!!
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