Posted: May 12, 2000 at 08:47:44: by Maglor
: I disagree. The high kingship goes to the eldest male from the eldest male-line (exclusing of course the Feanoreans). Thus, once the high kingship goes to a given line it would remain within that line until exhausted. Assume High King A has two sons B and C and son B has son B-1. Oldest brother B becomes high king upon A's death. Upon B's death, his son B-1 would become high king, not his uncle C. That is because B-1 comes from an elder line even if the individual member may junior.: Russ That's how a normal morarchy works, yes. But I for some reason don't concider the title High King over the Noldor to be the same thing as a normal monarchy. The high king does not have the same power as a European king in the middle ages. Fingolfin was the high king for long, but I don't think he could command any of Finrods people. The institution was so loose so an heridetary kingship would not seem logically to me. (don't ask me to explain why) To appoint the oldest male person of Finwes house as high king would seem more appropriate. Maglor
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