Posted: July 06, 2000 at 11:35:14: by Martin Read
: : snip: : : : But does it then not follow, that any book written by a catholic, could be portrayed as a catholic book? : : : : Jan : : : I'm not a Catholic, so I would I would find it hard to comment. I imagine that it would depend on whether a Catholic intended what he wrote to be consistent with his religious beliefs. Clearly Tolkien did intend LOTR to be consistent with his religious beliefs, but it would not follow that every Catholic writer would intend this. : : Actually, I would answer absolutely, in so far as that when the book (or whatever art medium we are discussing) is released for public consumption and meaning is sought by whomever, they will harken back to the composer's background to draw connections. Tolkien railed against this at times, as he did not see his work as specifically containing any religious allegory. However, as an example, many people draw comparisons between Gandalf and Frodo to Jesus Christ, and Sauron and Morgoth to Lucifer because of Tolkien's background. : : Interesting enough, this is the very reason that J. D. Salinger stated for becoming a recluse. He did not want his own life and background to be used as a comparison tool for readers of his work. He wanted it to stand on its own. Unfortunately, his reclusiveness has backfired and his works are often cited with the reference "reclusive author" attached to them. : : -RR : And Patrick OŽbrian, who tried to avoid attention by the world by claiming he was Irish, but two years before his death, the truth came out that he was English. : Jan How does claimed or real Irishness protect from the attentions of the world? It didn't work very well for Oscar Wilde, James Joyce or Brendan Behan for example.
|