Posted by Neithan on July 15, 1999 at 06:33:31
In Reply to: Re: Arnor and its division posted by Martin Read on July 14, 1999 at 07:08:10:
: : : Did Tolkien ever write anything more about the division of : : : Arnor and the reasons for it? If not, does anyone have any : : : interesting speculation about it? >lots of snippage< >>Martin Wrote; : Could the Hill Men of Rhudaur not have been related to the Dunlendings? After all this branch of humanity are attested as far north as Bree and their choice of habitat is close to that of the Dunlendings, and the Folk of the White Mountains who were also Gwathuirim. As to their apparent hostility to the Dunedain, this seems to be a fairly late development, as they appear to have co-existed with, and perhaps consented to be ruled by, the Dunedain for many centuries (paralelled by Dunedain/Dunlending relations at Orthanc). It could be argued that the hostility of the Hill Men might have been due to their corruption by Angmar, as the Dunlendings (or elements of them) were corrupted by Saruman. >>>I agree with you Martin, but I think that we may have been corrupted by MERP, where it is explicitly stated that the Dunlendings and Hillmen are related and hate eachother. However, in this sort of post it would be nice if you snipped some- I regard your contributions to this list highly and read them eagerly, but you could have snipped here- unlike the feudal/counterfeudal argument where it is indeed argumenting and countering (I may take the time to get involved in that from a slightly different angle as I believe it open to each person's interpretation whether or not there is evidence (as a historian, I like "traces"- we accept very little evidence- better) for feudalism in LotR). Anyway Martin, the point is SNIP so I can easily download and read your valuable points thank you. :-) Neithan
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