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The White CouncilRe: SlaveryTolkien and Inklings Discussion |
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The White CouncilRe: SlaveryTolkien and Inklings Discussion |
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Posted by Michael Martinez on March 11, 2000 at 02:20:25 In Reply to: Re: Slavery posted by Maglor on March 10, 2000 at 10:17:10:
: : The Wainriders enslaved Northmen, so they and similar peoples : : (like the Balchoth and the Variags) seem to have practiced : : slavery. : After the War of the Ring Aragorn is said to have freed the : slaves of Mordor and given them the land around Nürnen. : Why would he do that if Gondor kept slaves of their own? : Wouldn't that lead to a slave revolt in Gondor? : There are two explenations, eather Gondor kept no slaves, or : Aragorn abolished slavery after the war. : Maybe this is the reason for his name Envinyatar, the renewer. Or Gondor gave up slavery in some earlier period. Slavery is not an efficient economic system. It tends to break down with declining populations becaue labor comes into high demand. Eastern Gondor had pretty much become a frontier region (a reversal from the days of the early kingdom). If there were any slaves in Gondor (and I'm not saying there were) at the time of the War of the Ring, they were more likely in the western lands. And whether they would have revolted when Aragorn released Mordor's slaves is anyone's guess. Under what conditions would such a Gondorian slave population have existed, and would they have had the numbers to mount a significant revolt?
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