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The White CouncilRe: Gandalf vs. SaurumanTolkien and Inklings Discussion |
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Posted by Padster on May 09, 2000 at 03:08:45 In Reply to: Re: Gandalf vs. Sauruman posted by Gandalf on May 08, 2000 at 18:56:20:
Oh not at all (IMO). The Valar stripping Saruman of his power would have been a direct intervention in the affairs of Middle-earth, which the Valar just did not do at all by the time of LOTR. In fact they hadn't since the War of Wrath. It did not matter that Saruman had been sent by them and therefore was kind of their responsibility. Morgoth was the responsibility of the Valar too and look how long it took them to do anything about him. But anyhow, lets not get sidetracked. Gandalf was the instrument of the Valar. Quite clearly he is waiting for Saruman to condemn himself beyond any redmeption. The sentence says something like "Gandalf waiting patiently as though for a sign to act", or some such stuff. When Saruman proved himself unredeemable Gandalf acted and using the power invested in him by Eru or the Valar, he threw Saruman down and reduced him to almost nothing. I think the Staff breaking may well have been symbolic too, since I do not agree that they were the same as the Rings of power. Regards Padster
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